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Top Modern History Quiz by Online Classes for SSC CGL

We are back again with another set of objective questions based on General Studies. By now you must be aware that every quiz in this series is dedicated to one subject alone and you are expected to revise that part of the subject, before attempting the quiz.

Based on modern history, this quiz has been created by our experts who are renowned for offering the Best Online SSC Coaching Classes in the country. Since this quiz deals with the origin and evolution of the constitution, preamble, states and union territories of India, it means you should revise till Article 4 of the Indian Constitution along with its history, before digging into the questions that have been asked here.

Do that and then enjoy it. 

Question 1. The original Indian Constitution had –
A. 22 parts and 8 schedules
B. 24 parts and 12 schedules
C. 26 parts and 10 schedules
D. There was no part and schedule in the original constitution

Solution: Option A

Explanation:
The original Indian Constitution had 22 parts, 395 articles and 8 schedules. At present, our constitution has 448 articles, 25 parts and 12 schedules.

Question 2. The Regulating Act 1773 was based on a report by a committee headed by whom?
A. Lord North
B. Lord Northbrook
C. Lord Lytton
D. Lord Harry

Solution: Option A

Explanation:

The Regulating Act 1773 was based on the report of a committee headed by the British Prime Minister at that time, Lord North. Under this act, the governance of the British East India Company was brought under the direct control of the British Parliament.

Question 3. The Supreme Court was established in which year in Calcutta?
A. 1774
B. 1785
C. 1775
D. 1773

Solution: Option A

Explanation:
A Supreme Court was set up in Calcutta as per the provisions of the Regulating Act 1773. Sir IlijaImpay was made the Chief Justice of the said Supreme Court. However, the problem arose with the administrative supremacy of the Governor and the Supreme Court.

Question 4. Which among the following divided the political responsibilities and the commerce related issues of the company?
A. Pitts India Act 1784
B. Regulating Act 1773
C. Charter Act 1793
D. Indian Councils Act 1812

Solution: Option A

Explanation:
The Pitts India Act 1784 was brought in order to improve upon the provisions of the Regulating Act 1773 in order to bring about better disciplines in the system of administration of the East India Company. In this regard, the political work and the trade and commerce issues were separated from each other. Separate councils were set up in order to cater to these categories.

Question 5. Which among the following brought the monopoly of East India Company in trade to an end?
A. Charter Act 1813
B. Charter Act 1793
C. Charter Act 1833
D. Charter Act 1853

Solution: Option A

Explanation:
In the Charter Act of 1813, the trade monopoly of the East India Company was brought to an end. The powers of the three presidencies namely Calcutta, Bombay and Madras were increased. Another important decision in this act is that the Christian Missionaries were allowed to propagate their religion in India.

Question 6. Which among the following changed the name of the Governor General’s Council to ‘Indian Council’?
A. Charter Act 1853
B. Charter Act 1833
C. Charter Act 1813
D. Charter Act 1793

Solution: Option B

Explanation:
In the Charter Act 1833, it was decided that the Governor of Bengal will be made the Governor of India. Also, the governor general and his council were given vast powers under this act. Lord William Bentinck became the first-ever Governor General of India, as per this act.

Question 7. Which among the following introduced the system of recruitment of the officials of the company through competitive examinations?
A. Charter Act 1853
B. Charter Act 1833
C. Charter Act 1813
D. Charter Act 1793

Solution: Option A

Explanation:
Charter Act 1853 was the last of the charter acts since after this in 1858, the Government of India Act was passed and the administration of India was put directly under the control of the British Parliament. In this, the legislative and the administrative functions were divided for the council of the governor general and also a competitive examination was introduced in order to recruit employees for the East India Company.

Question 8. The introduction of the post of Secretary of State was introduced in which among the following?
A. Government of India Act 1858
B. Charter Act 1853
C. Indian Councils Act 1892
D. Indian Councils Act 1861

Solution: Option A

Explanation:
The Government of India Act 1858 came into being after doing away with the rule of the East India Company in India. The administration of the company was brought under the direct control of the British Parliament. The administration of the country was put under the Secretary of State who was to report directly to the Parliament.

Question 9. Which among the following introduced the system of elections in the Legislative Council in India?
A. Indian Councils Act 1861
B. Indian Councils Act 1892
C. Indian Councils Act 1909
D. Government of India Act 1919

Solution: Option C

Explanation:
In the Indian Councils Act 1909, the number of additional members in the legislative council was increased and also the provincial councils were also enlarged. Election system was also introduced in the Legislative Council at the centre though the official majority was maintained. However in the provincial councils the official majority was not maintained.

Question 10. Which among the following introduced the system of transferred subjects and reserved subjects in the Indian administration?
A. Government of India Act 1919
B. Government of India Act 1935
C. Indian Councils Act 1909
D. Indian Councils Act 1892

Solution: Option A

Explanation:
In the Government of India Act 1919, the subjects of the administration were divided into central and provincial subjects. Provincial subjects were further categorized into reserved subjects and transferred subjects. For the transferred subjects, the administration was by the Governor along with the Ministers whereas for the reserved subjects, the governor and the executive council were only responsible.
Question 11. The idea of federation was introduced in which among the following for the first time?
A. Government of India Act 1935
B. Government of India Act 1919
C. Government of India Act 1909
D. None of the above

Solution: Option A

Explanation:
In the Government of India Act, 1935, the idea of a federation was first introduced for India with the states but it never came into being. Apart from this, the act also divided the legislative powers between the centre and the provinces.

Question 12. Who among the following was NOT a member of the Cabinet Mission that came to India in 1946?
A. Lord Pethick Lawrence
B. Sir Stafford Cripps
C. AV Alexander
D. John Simon

Solution: Option D

Explanation:
In 1946, a Cabinet Mission was sent to India consisting of three members – Sir Stafford Cripps, Pethick Lawrence and AC Alexander. The main objective of the mission was to help India achieve independence and to form a constituent assembly for the country.

Question 13. Which among the following was NOT headed by Pt. JawaharLal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly in India?
A. Finance and Staff Committee
B. Union Constitution Committee
C. Union Powers Committee
D. Steering Committee

Solution: Option D

Explanation:
The committees headed by Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru were:
• Finance and Staff Committee
• Ad hoc Committee on National Flag
• Union Constitution Committee
• Union Powers Committee
The Steering Committee was headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 14. Who among the following headed the Order of Business Committee in the Constituent Assembly of the country?
A. B Pattabhi Sitaramayya
B. KM Munshi
C. Dr BR Ambedkar
D. Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar

Solution: Option B

Explanation:
• B PattabhiSitaramayya – House Committee
• KM Munshi – Order of Business Committee
• Dr BR Ambedkar – Drafting Committee
• Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar – Credential Committee

Question 15. Who among the following introduced the Objective Resolution Motion in the Constituent Assembly?
A. Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
B. Dr Rajendra Prasad
C. Dr B R Ambedkar
D. None of the above

Solution: Option A

Explanation:
The Objective Resolution was moved in the first session of the Constituent Assembly on 13th December, 1946 by Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru and this later became the preamble of the constitution. The preamble was adopted on January 22, 1947 in the Constituent Assembly.

Question 16. The Office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) was taken from the constitution of which among the following countries?
A. United Kingdom
B. Australia
C. USA
D. South Africa

Solution: Option A

Explanation:
The UK Constitution had the biggest influence on the Indian Constitution. The features that were adopted in the Indian Constitution from the British Constitution were:
• Law making procedures
• Rule of Law
• Single Citizenship
• Bi-Cameral Parliamentary system
• Office of CAG

Question 17. The Constitution of India came into effect on –
A. November 26, 1949
B. January 26, 1950
C. January 22, 1949
D. November 26, 1947

Solution: Option B

Explanation:
The final reading of the Constitutional draft was carried out on November 26, 1949 and the signature of the President was also appended on this date. However, the whole constitution came into force on January 26, 1950 and it is also known as the date of commencement for the Indian Constitution.

Question 18. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution has been amended how many times?
A. Once
B. Twice
C. Thrice
D. Never

Solution: Option A

Explanation:
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was amended only once and that was in 1976 in the 42nd Amendment Act. It added the words ‘socialist, secular and integrity’ to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

Question 19. Which among the following deals with the formation of a new state in the country?
A. Article 2
B. Article 3
C. Article 4
D. Article 1

Solution: Option B

Explanation:
Article 1 is regarding the formation of the country whereas Article 3 is about the rule of formation of a new state by altering boundaries of the existing states in the country. Article 2 is about admitting new States.

Question 20. The recommendation of the State Government in reorganization of a state is –
A. Final and binding on the President
B. Not final and binding on the Parliament
C. Binding on the Parliament but not on the President
D. No recommendation is required from the states

Solution: Option B

Explanation:
A bill seeking to create a new state or reorganizing the boundaries of existing states can be introduced after recommendation from the President. It can be introduced in either House of the Parliament and after that, the state government is also asked to give the recommendations though that is not binding on the Parliament.

So, this brings us to the end of another quiz session. Hope, you are enjoying practising the questions with us. Do let us know your marks in the comment section and come back to visit us for cool updates.

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If you have liked our quizzes and insights on how you can benefit from these quizzes, we are sure that you will love our courses also. Take a look at our Ticket to Success Courses. Enroll and prepare with us.
All the Best!!

Summary
This GS quiz has been created keeping in mind the pattern of questions asked in the Combined Graduate Level (CGL) and 10+2 (CHSL) exams. To get further guidance from our expert faculty, feel free to write in to us at vidyagurudelhi@gmail.com. You can also call: 9650549487 / 9650549587 to speak with our student support team.

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Banking GK December 2021 by Top IBPS Online Classes

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In order to assist SBI and IBPS aspirants in cracking Banking Awareness Questions asked in the GK section of Tier-II exams, experts from Vidya Guru have designed a Quiz covering the noteworthy events of the last few weeks. As an aspirant who is devoted to making a career as a Probationary Officer or Clerk in any of the reputed public sector banks, you should pay close attention to this Quiz.

As the Centre for Best IBPS Online Coaching Classes and Govt. Job exam training, we publish excellent videos on YouTube. These videos, which cover various areas relevant to competitive exam preparation, will give you complete clarity about our teaching methodology. So, visit our YouTube channel and get a 1st hand experience of the quality of teaching imparted by our faculty. It will clear all your doubts, if you have any.

Banking GK Quiz (December 2021)

Question 1) The Bank of Baroda has launched a wearable payment solution which is known as _______
A) BOB Wide Wave
B) BOB World Wave
C) BOB Wrist Watch
D) BOB Wrist World
E) BOB Wrist Wave

Answer – B) BOB World Wave
Explanation:
The Bank of Baroda has launched a wearable payment solution which is known as BOB World Wave. By using BOB World Wave customers can monitor their Sp02, body temperature, heart rate and BP. Customers can make contactless transactions up to Rs. 5000 in all NFC enabled PoS devices and the transactions above Rs. 5000 by using a PIN. It also offers an exclusive 3-months free wellness package.

Question 2) How many digits are there in the Legal Entity Identifier (LEI)?
A) 10
B) 11
C) 15
D) 20
E) 18
Answer – D) 20
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has enforced Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) , a 20 digit number mandatory for cross-border transactions for capital or current account transactions of Rs 50 crore and above, from October 1 next year. It is used to improve the quality and accuracy of financial transactions worldwide.

Question 3) Which of the following Payments Banks received a scheduled bank status from the Reserve Bank of India?
A) Airtel Payments Bank
B) NSDL Payments Bank
C) Jio Payments Bank
D) Fino Payments Bank
E) Paytm Payments Bank

Answer – E) Paytm Payments Bank
Explanation:
Paytm Payments Bank received a scheduled bank status from the Reserve Bank of India under the Second Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

Question 4) Which of the following banks launched ‘On-the-Go’, a wearable keychain payment solution for its Debit Card Customers?
A) Punjab National Bank(PNB)
B) Bank Of Baroda(BOB)
C) City Union Bank (CUB)
D) Union Bank of India(UBI)
E) ICICI Bank

Answer – C) City Union Bank (CUB)
Explanation:
The City Union Bank (CUB) and NPCI has launched ‘On-the-Go’, a wearable keychain payment solution for its Debit Card Customers. Customers can make contactless transactions up to Rs. 5000 at all Rupay-enabled point of sale devices (PoS) without entering a PIN.

Question 5) RBI has announced its first global hackathon named “HARBINGER 2021 – Innovation for Transformation”. What is the theme of HARBINGER 2021?
A) Smarter Digital Transactions
B) Smarter Digital Payments
C) Smarter Digital Ideas
D) Smarter Digital Platforms
E) Smarter Digital Innovations

Answer – B) Smarter Digital Payments
Explanation:
The theme of “HARBINGER 2021 – Innovation for Transformation” : Smarter Digital Payments.

Question 6) Which of the following banks launched fitness-focused credit cards?
A) HDFC Bank
B) ICICI Bank
C) SBI
D) Axis Bank
E) CUB

Answer – C) SBI
Explanation:
SBI Cards has announced the launch of a fitness and wellness-focused credit card which is named ‘SBI Card Pulse’. By using these cards Customers can avail benefits towards fitness and wellness across the country.

Question 7) Which of the following White Label ATM(WLA) companies has crossed a milestone on deploying 10000 white-label ATMs?
A) Tata Communications Payment Solutions Limited (TCPSL)
B) BTI Payments – India1ATM
C) Hitachi Money Spot ATM
D) Vakrangee – White label ATM
E) None of these

Answer – B) BTI Payments – India1ATM
Explanation:
India1ATM has installed 10000 white-label ATMs. White Label ATMs, or WLAs, are the ATMs that are owned and operated by non-banking companies. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has authorized non-banking companies to set up White Label ATMs under the Payment and Settlement Systems(PSS) Act, 2007.

Question 8) Which of the following Payments Banks partnered to offer cash-based assisted bill payments at the doorstep of customers?
A) Airtel Payments Bank
B) NSDL Payments Bank
C) India Post Payments Bank (IPPB)
D) Fino Payments Bank
E) Paytm Payments Bank

Answer – C) India Post Payments Bank (IPPB)
Explanation:
India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) and NPCI Bharat BillPay Limited(NBBL) have partnered to offer cash-based assisted bill payments at the doorstep of IPPB as well as non IPPB customers.
NPCI Bharat BillPay Limited(NBBL):
NBBL is the wholly owned subsidiary of NPCI which processes all recurring payments in the country.
CEO – Ms. Noopur Chaturvedi

Question 9) Which of the following has approved a USD 350 million loan to improve urban services in India?
A) World Bank(WB)
B) Asian Development Bank(ADB)
C) International Monetary Fund(IMF)
D) European Bank for Reconstruction and Development(EBRD)
E) None of these

Answer – B) Asian Development Bank(ADB)
Explanation: Asian Development Bank(ADB) has approved a USD 350 million loan to improve urban services in India.
Asian Development Bank(ADB):
Headquarters: Mandaluyong, Philippines
President: Masatsugu Asakawa
Membership: 68 countries

Question 10) Recently, Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has received approval from the RBI to raise its holding in _______
A) Yes Bank
B) IndusInd Bank
C) CUB
D) IDBI Bank
E) Only (A) and (B)

Answer – B) IndusInd Bank
Explanation:
Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has received the approval from the central bank to hike stake in IndusInd Bank to 9.99% from the existing 4.95%.

Question 11) What is the minimum amount for investment in Government of India Treasury Bills (T-Bills) through the Retail Direct platform?
A) Rs.5000
B) Rs.15000
C) Rs.7500
D) Rs.10000
E) Rs.1000

Answer – D) Rs.10000
Explanation:
The minimum amount for investment in Government of India Treasury Bills (T-Bills) through the Retail Direct platform is Rs.10000

Question 12) What is the minimum amount for investment in Government of India dated securities (dated G-Sec) through the Retail Direct platform?
A) Rs.5000
B) Rs.15000
C) Rs.7500
D) Rs.10000
E) Rs.1000

Answer – D) Rs.10000
Explanation:
The minimum amount for investment in Government of India dated securities (dated G-Sec) through the Retail Direct platform is Rs.10000

Question 13) What is the minimum amount for investment in State Development Loans (SDLs) through the Retail Direct platform?
A) Rs.5000
B) Rs.15000
C) Rs.7500
D) Rs.10000
E) Rs.1000

Answer – D) Rs.10000
Explanation:
The minimum amount for investment in State Development Loans (SDLs) through the Retail Direct platform is Rs.10000

Question 14) What is the minimum amount for investment in Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB) through the Retail Direct platform?
A) 5 gram of gold
B) 1 gram of gold
C) 4 gram of gold
D) 10 gram of gold
E) 8 gram of gold

Answer – B) 1 gram of gold
Explanation:
The minimum amount for investment in Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB) through the Retail Direct platform is 1 gram of gold

Question 15) What is the maximum amount for investment in Government of India Treasury Bills (T-Bills) through the Retail Direct platform?
A) 1 Crore
B) No limits
C) 5 Crore
D) The aggregate allocation of all non-competitive bids will be restricted to a maximum of 5% of the aggregate nominal amount of the issue within the notified amount as specified by the Government of India, or any other percentage determined by RBI.
E) ₹2 crore (face value) per security per auction.

Answer – D) The aggregate allocation of all non-competitive bids will be restricted to a maximum of 5% of the aggregate nominal amount of the issue within the notified amount as specified by the Government of India, or any other percentage determined by RBI.
Explanation:
The maximum amount for investment in Government of India Treasury Bills (T-Bills) through the Retail Direct platform is the aggregate allocation of all non-competitive bids will be restricted to a maximum of 5% of the aggregate nominal amount of the issue within the notified amount as specified by the Government of India, or any other percentage determined by RBI.

Question 16) What is the maximum amount for investment in Government of India dated securities (dated G-Sec) through the Retail Direct platform?
A) 1 Crore
B) 1% of notified amount (face value) per auction
C) 5 Crore
D) The aggregate allocation of all non-competitive bids will be restricted to a maximum of 5% of the aggregate nominal amount of the issue within the notified amount as specified by the Government of India, or any other percentage determined by RBI.
E) ₹2 crore (face value) per security per auction.

Answer – E) ₹2 crore (face value) per security per auction.
Explanation:
The maximum amount for investment in Government of India dated securities (dated G-Sec) through the Retail Direct platform is ₹2 crore (face value) per security per auction.

Question 17) What is the maximum amount for investment in State Development Loans (SDLs) through the Retail Direct platform?
A) 1 Crore
B) 1% of notified amount (face value) per auction
C) 5 Crore
D) The aggregate allocation of all non-competitive bids will be restricted to a maximum of 5% of the aggregate nominal amount of the issue within the notified amount as specified by the Government of India, or any other percentage determined by RBI.
E) ₹2 crore (face value) per security per auction.

Answer – B) 1% of notified amount (face value) per auction
Explanation:
The minimum amount for investment in State Development Loans (SDLs) through the Retail Direct platform is 1% of notified amount (face value) per auction

Question 18) What is the maximum amount for investment in Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB) through the Retail Direct platform?
A) 5 kg of gold
B) 1 kg of gold
C) 4 kg of gold
D) 10 kg of gold
E) 8 kg of gold

Answer – C) 4 kg of gold
Explanation:
The maximum amount for investment in Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB) through the Retail Direct platform is 4 kg of gold.

Question 19) In CSGL account, “L” stands for _______
A) Loan
B) Limited
C) Liability
D) Ledger
E) None of these

Answer – D) Ledger
Explanation:
CSGL – Constituents’ Subsidiary General Ledger account – a securities account opened and maintained with RBI by an agent on behalf of the constituents of such agent, i.e., an account opened by an agent with the RBI to hold the securities on behalf of their constituents. The constituents are known as the Gilt Account Holders (GAHs)

Question 20) Mobile Aided Note Identifier (MANI) is a mobile application launched by ______
A) Ministry of Finance
B) NPCI
C) GOI
D) RBI
E) None of these

Answer – D) RBI
Explanation:
Mobile Aided Note Identifier (MANI) is a mobile application launched by the Reserve Bank for aiding visually impaired persons to identify the denomination of Indian Banknotes. It does not authenticate a note as being either genuine or counterfeit.

In order to add to the learning from these Banking Awareness Quizzes, we suggest you create a free account on our website from where you can download the free monthly Current Affairs magazine. To get access to the Best SSC CGL Online Coaching Classes and ace the upcoming Combined Graduate Level examination, we advise you to sign up for our courses at the earliest. Every single day makes a difference to your exam preparation, when the competition is such that even .25 marks can be the gap between success and failure.

Being teachers who fully understand all dimensions of learning, we offer our courses in Complete English & Hinglish (Hindi + English) mediums. The complete English medium course has been created specifically for our students from Southern & North East India as they may experience difficulty in understanding Hindi. So, whichever part of the country you are from, you can join our SSC, CDS and IBPS PO Online Classes without worrying even a second whether you will be able to understand the language of teaching or not.

Summary
This set of objective questions on Banking Awareness is going to be most relevant for IBPS and SBI Bank PO / Clerk, IBPS RRB, LIC, NICL, SEBI and RBI exams. To get complete information about Vidya Guru’s Pen Drive / Online and Offline Courses, you can contact our student support team on: 9650549487 / 9650549587 or write to us at vidyagurudelhi@gmail.com

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Learning Antonyms from Experts of Banking Coaching Classes

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Hi!!
A very warm welcome to our dear students on behalf of Vidya Guru, renowned as the Institute for Best Bank PO Coaching in Delhi & NCR.

So, it is time for the next round of vocabulary dose for our dear students. The difference in this round will be that the questions are going to be based not on synonyms, but on antonyms. In the last few sets, you have attempted ample number of questions based on finding similar meaning words. However, in the actual exam, you will face questions on opposite words as well.

Still, that’s not the sole reason for such vocabulary improvement quizzes as by now you must be aware that we try to impart learning in a practical manner. Our aim is genuine linguistic improvement in our students and not just retention of information for the purpose of scoring marks in examination.

So, where exactly are the antonyms needed in our daily life? Mostly we use the antonyms in the negative connotation in our daily usage. Apart from that, sometimes it is used with ‘not’ to emphasize on the connotation of a particular word in opposite. Here, our main objective is that you know the words that are diametrically opposite to a word. That will complete your learning of a word also i.e. you know the meaning, you know some other words that also imply the same, you also know the opposite meaning of the word and obviously, last but not the least, you know the application of the words. It is called 360-Degree learning methodology.

Having said all these, let us now proceed towards the quiz that we have meticulously designed for all of you. Go through it; learn the words and their antonyms along with the application of that word. Try to think of the situations in which the opposite word may come in handy for you for writing or speaking.

We are quite positive that it will be beneficial for you in your overall journey of learning.

Direction (Q. 1-20): Find the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.

Question 1. Dainty
A. Clumsy
B. Elegant
C. Prolong
D. Decomposed

Sol: Option A

Ex. We have never come across such a dainty person in our life before.

Question 2. Defer
A. Contaminate
B. Postpone
C. Accelerate
D. Devastate

Sol: Option C

Ex. The deadline has now been deferred indefinitely in view of the pandemic.

Question 3. Abjure
A. Destitute
B. Adopt
C. Compel
D. Accrue

Sol: Option B

Ex. All the team members were requested to abjure their haughty decision-making ability.

Question 4. Amplify
A. Repel
B. Contract
C. Enhance
D. Relieve

Sol: Option B

Ex. The speech of the headmaster further amplified his anger towards the education system.

Question 5. Commendation
A. Adversity
B. Calumny
C. Disillusion
D. Aspersion

Sol: Option B

Ex. The employee deserved commendation for his role in the success of the company.

Question 6. Captivity
A. Confinement
B. Lustful
C. Liberty
D. Barbarity

Sol: Option C

Ex. An animal in captivity cannot be considered to be happy with its situation.

Question 7. Spiritual
A. Blunt
B. Carnal
C. Indurate
D. Inglorious

Sol: Option B

Ex. He has this spiritual bent of mind and not everybody can understand it correctly.

Question 8. Disintegrate
A. Legalize
B. Cement
C. Plaster
D. Mortar

Sol: Option B

Ex. Their marriage disintegrated because of misunderstanding and lack of quality time.

Question 9. Headstrong
A. Misery
B. Opaque
C. Pliable
D. Giant

Sol: Option C

Ex. He is such a headstrong person that you really cannot think of placing him in an important position.

Question 10. Encumbrance
A. Incentive
B. Hindrance
C. Colossal
D. Aspiration

Sol: Option A

Ex. Please do not forget to fill the details regarding encumbrance on the property you are mortgaging with the bank.

Question 11. Frantic
A. Agitated
B. Extravagant
C. Calm
D. Mirthful

Sol: Option C

Ex. The faculty at the Institute for Best SSC Coaching in Delhi suggests that candidates must start studying well in advance because frantic attempts at exam preparation during the final stages rarely result in success.

Question 12. Hamstrung
A. Encourage
B. Conviction
C. Security
D. Abrupt

Sol: Option A

Ex. They seemed to have been hamstrung by their own inhibitions.

Question 13. Impenitent
A. Repentant
B. Deliberate
C. Cautious
D. Affluent

Sol: Option A

Ex. The arm-chair critics are often impenitent for their words and actions.

Question 14. Candor
A. Complication
B. Dissimulation
C. Effeminate
D. Extraneous

Sol: Option B

Ex. Everybody loves a man of refreshing candor since such a person will always help you.

Question 15. Lax
A. Slack
B. Rigid
C. Severe
D. Stingy

Sol: Option B

Ex. You should not have lax security at the entrance of such as high-profile function.

Question 16. Luxuriant
A. Scanty
B. Unsavory
C. Mystifying
D. Metrical

Sol: Option A

Ex. The beautiful lady tossed her luxuriant dark hair and everybody was mesmerized by her beauty.

Question 17. Infuriate
A. Soothe
B. Irritate
C. Dissuade
D. Lure

Sol: Option A

Ex. His lack of sincerity infuriated all the interview board members.

Question 18. Miraculous
A. Arrogant
B. Mundane
C. Gallant
D. Strapping

Sol: Option B

Ex. This is miraculous that he could be saved by the doctors.

Question 19. Munificent
A. Faithful
B. Distinct
C. Penurious
D. Generous

Sol: Option C

Ex. Such munificent behaviour is very difficult to come across these days.

Question 20. Odious

A. Inoffensive
B. Latent
C. Ambiguous
D. Descendant

Sol: Option A

Ex. His is a quite odious character and we never work with him.

That’s it from our side this time. Hope you have learnt something new from this quiz and you will definitely be able to apply your learning whenever and wherever required. The examinations are coming and we, at Vidya Guru, will be there for you always to help you sail through the journey. For more updates, do follow us on Vidyaguru Blog.

We also want to take this opportunity to invite you to check our courses, created with lots of love and effort, for all of you, so that you can crack the exams easily and that also, in the 1st attempt itself. Further, if you are interested in the upcoming National Recruitment Agency exam preparation, you can check our NRA CET Online Coaching Classes which are available in both Complete English and Bilingual mediums.

Study, practice and succeed. We are there for you, in every step you take towards your success.
All the Best!!

Summary
This quiz has been created keeping in view the pattern of vocabulary based questions that are being asked in Competitive exams these days. In case of any doubts or to know further about our Coaching Classes, do write to us at vidyagurudelhi@gmail.com.

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Superb Vocabulary Quiz by Centre for SSC Coaching in Delhi

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Warm welcome to all our Shishyas 
We hope you all are hale and hearty. Today, we shall discuss one thing that we have gathered from years of providing Best SSC CGL Online Coaching Classes to countless students engaged in Govt. Job Preparation across the country. Why are so many students unable to perform well in the English language section?

The fear with English is that it is a foreign language and many are not comfortable with it may be because of their educational background or some psychological barrier against learning this language. But if you really wish to learn English, you have to embrace this language.

For any question in English, you will be able to identify the issue in a jiffy if you follow this approach. Think about your mother tongue, if somebody says something wrong, you can identify the error quickly. Now, the same skill can be developed in English grammar and vocabulary, if you start thinking in English. Once you master this approach, you will be able to identify the mistakes easily.

Okay, so enough of our Guru Gyaan!! Let us move to the quiz that we have brought for you in this set. We have told earlier also that do not focus on your marks in these quizzes, but learn and apply the words in other contexts. That is our main motto through these quizzes.

Directions (Q. 1-20): Find the word that is similar in meaning to the given word.

Question – 1. Relinquish
A. Abash
B. Abandon
C. Abridge
D. Abet
Solution: Option B

Example: They relinquished their rights without thinking twice about the consequences.

Question – 2. Abrogate
A. Rescind
B. Abstemious
C. Elongate
D. Curtain
Solution: Option A

Example: The agreement was abrogated by both the countries with mutual consent.

Question – 3. Cadaverous
A. Cacophonous
B. Bumptious
C. Cabal
D. Gaunt
Solution: Option D

Example: He looked very pale and cadaverous and we took him to the doctor immediately.

Question – 4. Spur
A. Incite
B. Fluster
C. Assent
D. Tribute
Solution: Option A

Example: The new policy actually spurred the employees so much that they all resigned on the same day only.

Question – 5. Cohort
A. Adversary
B. Confederate
C. Affliction
D. Brusque
Solution: Option B

Example: They have hired a cohort of like-minded people who can sail the company through in these tough times.

Question – 6. Affable
A. Impecunious
B. Benign
C. Diffident
D. Surly
Solution: Option B

Example: You are fortunate enough to get such an affable life partner.

Question – 7. Rancor
A. Amity
B. Refraction
C. Affinity
D. Enmity
Solution: Option D

Example: He spoke with rancor though we have not done anything to him or his family.

Question – 8. Armistice
A. Facsimile
B. Adept
C. Deceit
D. Truce
Solution: Option D

Example: The government has decided to sign an armistice with the insurgents to stop all the violence going on in the country.

Question – 9. Recant
A. Disavow
B. Askance
C. Indolent
D. Slothful
Solution: Option A

Example: They were punished since they did not recant from their stand of not cooperating with the authorities in the city.

Question – 10. Avarice
A. Askew
B. Banal
C. Cupidity
D. Chaff
Solution: Option C

Example: His avarice will bring him down as he is never satisfied with anything.

Question – 11. Pugnacious
A. Conciliatory
B. Bellicose
C. Disinterested
D. Magnanimous
Solution: Option B

Example: The statements made by the minister became pugnacious and everybody was hurt by the statements.

Question – 12. Ovation
A. Dissension
B. Accolade
C. Obtuseness
D. Suave
Solution: Option B Chetna 9811255313

Example: Saloni, a meritorious student at the Institute for Best Bank PO Coaching in Delhi & NCR received a standing ovation from her batch mates upon scoring one of the Top ranks in IBPS PO exam.

Question – 13. Bucolic
A. Pastoral
B. Ranting
C. Pompous
D. Dejected
Solution: Option A

Example: The place is so pleasant only because of its bucolic setting.

Question – 14. Captious
A. Evasive
B. Outspoken
C. Carping
D. Ludicrous
Solution: Option C

Example: We have never seen such as captious reviewer like him in our entire life.

Question – 15. Dolorous
A. Dynamic
B. Opinionated
C. Lugubrious
D. Edict
Solution: Option C

Example: Such a dolorous tale should not be narrated to the students at all as it will disturb their minds.

Question – 16. Entreat
A. Supplicate
B. Stray
C. Fleeting
D. Erratic
Solution: Option A

Example: His parents entreated him not to go there at any cost.

Question – 17. Expedient
A. Impromptu
B. Defunct
C. Opportune
D. Extant
Solution: Option C

Example: You should come out of that marriage if it is not expedient for you to stay married.

Question – 18. Idiosyncrasy
A. Renowned
B. Preeminent
C. Supposition
D. Foible
Solution: Option D

Example: Normally couples tolerate the foibles of each other happily.

Question – 19. Insidious
A. Innocuous
B. Crafty
C. Cryptic
D. Fomenting
Solution: Option B

Example: This is coming from somebody who must be insidious in nature because not an ordinary person can do this.

Question – 20. Choleric
A. Irascible
B. Placid
C. Monotonous
D. Jaunty
Solution: Option A

Example: The new director seemed to be a choleric character especially because he has not behaved well with anybody till date.

This is all from our side this time. As we have said time and again, our endeavor is to make your comfortable in what you are supposed to learn so that when you write the examination, you are daring enough to go there and attempt the paper without any apprehension. That comes with practice, confidence and also self-assessment.

The simple thing is that you should know yourself correctly, or else, you will never be able to crack the examinations. If you are good at something, exploit that to fetch marks, on the other hand, if you are not that good at something, hone your skills so that you can get yourself comfortable in that area also.

In that note, we leave you to ponder over what we have discussed above. Learn the words, assimilate the meanings and application. Then come back with more zeal to solve the next quiz. We are coming up with awesome content regularly on Vidyaguru Blog.

Also, we have various courses to ensure your success in the competitive examinations of your choice. Check the courses at Ticket to Success Courses.

All the Best!!
Summary
To know more about our Online / Pen Drive & Classroom Coaching Courses, feel free to call us on: 9650549487 / 9650549587 or drop us an e-mail at vidyagurudelhi@gmail.com

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Why Vidya Guru offers the Best Online Bank PO coaching?

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Banking stands as one of the most popular career options apart from Engineering and Medical. To qualify for the several bank exams, students should go for bank coaching. The coaching should be of premium quality with proper guidance. Of several bank exams, SBI and IBPS have the greatest importance. Bank exams are conducted for recruitment to several posts, of which Bank PO is one. Many institutes offer the Bank PO coaching. Vidya Guru is one of the most renowned coaching institutes that provides the best online Bank PO coaching. At Vidya Guru, aspirants are prepared not only for IBPS exams but are also guided for SBI and RBI exams.

At Vidya Guru, exam-oriented coaching is provided to the aspirants. Vidya Guru offers efficient guidance for the preparation of bank exams in Delhi. The entire concept is cleared so that the aspirants don’t lag in the exam preparation. The institute ensures an in-depth understanding of each subject. At Vidya Guru, complete course coverage is ensured so that the aspirants don’t run out of knowledge as they sit for the main examinations. At Vidya Guru, online bank coaching is given to the aspirants through Pen drive or Video Classes. The aspirants can choose to have the study material or can simply get access to pen drive or online coaching. Even in the online mode of coaching, it is ensured that the entire syllabus is covered.

The faculty members of Vidya Guru are true experts. They are not only teachers but also guides and mentors to the aspirants. The faculty are dedicated and passionate about their work and offer the best quality coaching to the aspirants. The online classes are really interactive and the aspirants get an experience similar to that of Classroom teaching. Vidya Guru hosts more than 400 video classes that help the students to take the Bank PO coaching from anywhere and at any time as per their convenience. The faculty also conduct counselling sessions with the aspirants as they understand the importance of positive attitude and confidence to crack a competitive exam.

The aspirants are given the relevant study material that would help them throughout their preparation period. The study material is designed as per the syllabus of the Bank PO exam. The study material is intensive as it contains all the relevant topics regarding the syllabus for the preparation of Bank PO. The faculty at Vidya Guru also offer classes to discuss current affairs which is an essential factor to qualify for a Bank PO. Being one of the most competitive examinations, qualifying for a Bank PO exam requires the right guidance and mentoring, which are ensured at Vidya Guru.

Like other competitive examinations, even Bank PO requires some tricks and tactics to be followed by the aspirants for easy and efficient solving of questions. The aspirants are taught the appropriate shortcuts and tricks to ace the Bank PO examination without much hassle. The faculty ensure that the students develop a clear understanding of the basic concepts so that they can solve even the toughest questions asked in the exam. The students are guided to learn to manage speed and accuracy, which are the two essential elements of a Bank PO exam. The students are also taught astute question selection so that they can maximize their exam score.

With the best faculty members, updated current affairs, regular online test series, Vidya Guru stands as one of the best online Bank PO coaching centres. The aspirants can access self-paced learning along with easy and quick revisions. Armed with in-depth study material and excellent support, the aspirants are made exam-ready. Thus, Vidya Guru Faculty have been successfully guiding students to score maximum in the bank exams. Now their excellent teaching style can be easily accessed at an affordable course fee.

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What are the perks of taking SSC coaching classes online?

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SSC is the acronym for Staff Selection Commission. Every year the SSC invites aspirants from all over the country to sit for various government posts that are offered to them the whole year-round. Students need to qualify for the 4 Tier examinations to qualify for the exams so conducted. These examinations face a fierce and cut-throat competition that compels students to be all prepared and skilled. Although SSC coaching is being offered in various institutes yet SSC coaching classes online are in more demand. Online lectures have turned out to be a boon in many aspects. The students are enabled with the right time management skills and making appropriate use of the Internet Services.

Offline SSC coaching was not a bad idea from any aspect but Online services offer more benefits to the aspirants. While being in the comfort of a home, students can access coaching from anywhere in the country. Aspirants can go for the prospective courses and can avail the classes from any place and time as per their convenience. One of the biggest lookouts of Online SSC coaching has been that the students who do not have an SSC coaching institute in their cities, can access the SSC coaching from institutes like Vidya Guru that never fails to offer the best of coaching to the aspirants.

Although online coaching is a relatively new phenomenon the benefits have been outstanding. All the aspirants are not students. Some are part-time jobholders, some are married housewives, and some are students undergoing academics, and a lot more to add to the list. Through online SSC coaching, the aspirants can access the video lectures at their convenience. Aspirants can take their classes during the leisure period. SSC coaching classes online help aspirants cover their syllabus in time without having to worry about missing a certain lecture. The greatest benefit is the availability of video lectures which can be seen anytime. Apart from it, the aspirants are saved from actually traveling to the institutes for the classes.

SSC online coaching has turned out to be very beneficial because of the perks that it offers. Some of which are stated below:

• Time Savvy: Offline classes consume plenty of time in commuting. Time is one essential factor for every competitive exam. Students can pursue online coaching from the comfort of their homes. Many coaching institutes offer online SSC coaching that helps the students to save their time. Students do not have to travel a long distance to the coaching institutes for lectures. The time which is saved can be used in better preparation for the exams.

• Realistic approach: At online SSC coaching classes, the faculties adopt a realistic approach that is relevant to the syllabus and offer complete coverage of the course months before the final examinations.

• Intensive study material: The study materials are relevant and contain enough content as per the SSC syllabus. The online SSC coaching is designed in a manner to cover all the respective topics. These help the aspirants to prepare better with relevant data and study materials.

• Mock Tests: Mock tests are an essential part of every competitive examination including SSC. Aspirants can easily assess their performance. They can improve their capacities and capabilities by analysing their performances in SSC mock trials and several test series.

Why Vidya Guru?
Vidya Guru is one of the finest coaching institutes based out in Delhi. This institute offers quality SSC coaching classes online. They have a group of well-qualified and dedicated faculties who add to the institute’s grandeur and prominence. Aspirants can rely on the institute because of its previous performances and glorious testimonials. For successfully cracking the SSC examination, students are given the right support and guidance that would help them prosper in their careers. With relevant techniques and skills, the SSC aspirants are nurtured with excellence at Vidya Guru.

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Union Budget 2021 Highlights by Online Classes for IBPS PO

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Union Budget, which is the income and expense statement of the Govt. of India, was presented in the Parliament recently. The announcements made in the budget become the basis for sure-shot General Awareness questions asked in IBPS, SSC, CDS, RBI and various Competitive examinations. It is essential to learn by heart the statistical figures and information provided in the budget.

Being the Institute for Best SSC Online Coaching in English & Hindi, Vidya Guru provides an error-free gist of the Budget every year for the benefit of all Govt. Job aspirants. It is suggested that you include the below mentioned points in the study notes you are preparing for upcoming exams. It will enable you to attempt any budget related GK Question you face.

Highlights of Union Budget 2021-22

The Six Pillars of the Union Budget as envisioned by the Central Govt. are:

(I) Health and Wellbeing

(II) Physical & Financial Capital, and Infrastructure

(III) Inclusive Development for Aspirational India

(IV) Reinvigorating Human Capital

(V) Innovation and R&D

(VI) Minimum Government and Maximum Governance

Key Macroeconomic Data

GDP Growth (FY 20-21): -7.7%
GDP Growth (FY 21-22): 11%
Nominal GDP Growth (FY 21-22): 15.4%
Agriculture Growth (FY 20-21): 3.4%
Industry Growth (FY 20-21): -9.6%
Services Growth (FY 20-21): -8.8%
Services Sector Contribution: 54 % of India’s GVA
Revenue Deficit (FY 20-21): 7.5% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
Revenue Deficit (FY 21-22): 5.1% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
Fiscal Deficit (FY 20-21): 9.5% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
Fiscal Deficit (FY 21-22): 6.8% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
Primary Deficit (FY 20-21): 5.9% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
Primary Deficit (FY 21-22): 3.1% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
Current Account Surplus (FY 20-21): 2% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
GVA Growth (FY 20-21): -7.2%

Noteworthy Points

(a) The expected Economic Recovery Curve is: V Shaped

(b) Nominal GDP Growth = Real GDP Growth + Inflation

(d) Fiscal Deficit is the Difference between Total Revenue & Total Expenditure of the Govt. It reflects the Total Borrowing Requirement of the Govt.

(e) Primary Deficit is Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments.

(f) Current Account Surplus shows that a Country has more Exports than Imports.

(g) India is seeing a Current Account Surplus after 17 Years.

(h) GVA (Gross Value Added) = GDP + Subsidies on Prodts – Taxes on Products

Budget Allocation FY (21-22)

Ministry of Health & Family Welfare = Rs. 73,932 Crores
Ministry of Defence = Rs. 4.78 Lakh Crores
Ministry of Education = Rs. 93,224 Crores
Ministry of Railways = Rs. 1.1 Lakh Crores
Ministry of Agriculture & Farmer Welfare = Rs. 131531 Crores (1.31 Lakh Crores)
Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MORTH) = Rs. 1.18 Lakh Crores

Scheme-Wise Allocation FY (21-22)

National Health Mission = Rs. 37,130 Crores
MGNREGA = Rs. 73,000 Crores
PM Kisan Scheme = Rs. 65,000 Crores
National Education Mission = Rs. 34,300 Crores
Smart Cities Mission and AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation & Urban Transformation) = Rs. 13,750 Crores
Jal Jeevan Mission = Rs. 50,000 Crores
Outlay for Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban) = Rs. 2.87 Lakh Crores (over 5 Years)
Total Outlay for Health & Wellbeing = Rs. 2,23,846 Crores
Outlay for Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) 2.0 = Rs. 1.41 Lakh Crores (over 5 Years)

Important Announcements

Disinvestment Target for the Fiscal Year (2021-2022) is Rs. 1.75 Lakh Crores.
FDI Limit in Insurance sector has been hiked to 74%.
Govt. has proposed the Disinvestment of 2 Public Sector Banks and 1 General Insurer.
Govt. has ensured an MSP (Minimum Support Price) for all Agri Commodities worth 1.5 Times the Production Cost.
Asset Reconstruction Company / Asset Management Company (Bad Bank) is going to be created for NPA Resolution in Public Sector Banks.
MITRA (Mega Investment Textiles Parks) scheme is going to be launched for making Indian Textile Industry Globally Competitive.
The outlay for PM AtmaNirbhar Swasth Bharat Yojana is going to be Rs. 64180 Crores (over 6 Years)
Pneumococcal Vaccine is going to be rolled out across India.
Supplementary Nutrition Programme & Poshan Abhiyan are going to merge into Mission Poshan 2.0.
The outlay for PLI (Production Linked Incentive) scheme has been kept at (Rs. 1.97 Lakh Crores over 5 Years)
Production Linked Incentive Scheme has been launched for 13 Sectors.
‘Operation Green’ has now been extended to 22 Perishable Products.
New Central University is going to come up in Leh (Ladakh).
The Post Matric Scholarship Scheme announced for Scheduled Castes will benefit 4 Crore students.
The Turnover Limit for Tax Audit has been hiked to Rs. 10 Crores for companies undertaking 95% Digital transactions.
The provision for providing additional Rs.1.5 Lakh Deduction on Home Loan Interest has been extended till 31st March, 2022.
Capital Gains Exemption (Tax Exemption) for Investment in Start-ups has been extended till 31st March, 2022.
Govt. is going to set up a Rs. 20,000 Crores Development Finance Institution (DFI) for Infrastructure Financing.
The Development Finance Institution (DFI) for Infrastructure Financing is projected to lend Rs. 5 Lakh Crores (over 3 Years).
New Metro Technologies MetroLite & MetroNeo are going to be launched for Tier-2 Cities and Peripherals of Tier-1 Cities.
100 New Sainik Schools are going to be set up.
750 Eklavya Schools will be set up in Tribal Areas.
India is going to partner with UAE and Japan in the field of Skill Development and Recognition.
Govt. is going to come up with a Single Securities Markets Code. The code will rationalize the provisions of the following acts: (I) Sebi Act (II) Depositories Act, (III) Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act (IV) Government Securities Act
A new Gas Pipeline Project is going to come up in Jammu & Kashmir
SEBI has been appointed as the Regulator of Gold Exchanges.
Rs. 20,000 Crores will be invested in Recapitalization of Public Sector Banks.
Net Borrowing for States FY (21-22) has been allowed up to 4% of GSDP (Gross State Domestic Product).
ITR filing has been exempted for individuals aged 75 Years and above, if their sources of income are Pension and Interest.
LIC of India is going to come up with its IPO issue in FY 2021-22.
Govt. is going in for Strategic Sale / Disinvestment of the following PSUs: (I) IDBI Bank (II) BPCL (III) Shipping Corp (IV) BEML (V) Container Corporation (VI) Neelachal Ispat Nigam Ltd. (VII) Pawan Hans (VIII) Air India

Apart from accessing our Current Affairs Updates, we also suggest you subscribe to our YouTube channel, which is a Top Quality free learning resource for candidates looking to attend SSC, Banking and CDS Online Classes delivered by India’s No.1 faculty members. However, signing up for Vidya Guru’s premium Video Courses is most advisable as it gives you access to all the resources and guidance required to crack even the toughest of Govt. job entrance exams.

Now you can easily avail the Best Bank PO Online Coaching in English or Hindi medium by signing up for our Online / Pen Drive Video Course along with Quality Study Material and Updated Test Series. For further details, feel free to write in at vidyagurudelhi@gmail.com. You can also get in touch with our admissions team on 9650549487 / 9650549587 / 9654899726.

Summary

The highlights of the Union Budget 2021-22 have been presented in this blog update. The information has been carefully selected and verified so as to benefit all Govt. Job aspirants in their exam preparation.

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Awesome Vocabulary Quiz by Top SSC CGL Coaching in Delhi

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So, we are back with another round of vocabulary dose for all of you. The difference here would be the questions will be based on antonyms rather than synonyms as you have attempted in the last few sets. Regardless of whether you are looking for the Best IBPS PO Online Coaching Classes or SSC CGL Preparation Courses for your target exam, these questions will surely aid your learning. Primary reason for this change is that you face such questions in the actual examination. But, that is obviously not the only reason because all of you must have been aware by now that we are trying to impart learning in a manner that helps you in retention of the facts. This is called life-long learning, instead of cramming for the examination only.

So, where exactly will you need these antonyms in your real life? Mostly we use the antonyms in negative connotations in our daily usage. Apart from that, sometimes, they are used with ‘not’ to emphasize the connotation opposite to a certain word. Here, our main objective is that you learn the words that are diametrically opposite to a given word. That will complete your learning of a word i.e. you know the meaning, you know some other words that imply the same connotation as well and you also become aware of the opposite meanings of the word. Obviously, last but not the least, with our quizzes you get to learn the application of the words. Thus, it is the 360-Degree learning methodology.

Having said all these things, let us now proceed towards the quiz that we have meticulously designed for all of you. Go through it; learn the words, their synonyms and antonyms along with the application of that word. Try to think of the situations in which the opposite word may come in handy for you while writing or speaking.

We hope that it will help you in your overall learning journey.

Direction (Q. 1-20): Find the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word.

Question 1: Dainty
A. Clumsy
B. Elegant
C. Prolong
D. Decomposed

Solution: Option A

Synonyms: Graceful, Elegant and Cute

Example: We have not come across such a dainty person in our life before.

Question 2: Defer
A. Contaminate
B. Postpone
C. Accelerate
D. Devastate

Solution: Option C

Synonyms: Delay, Adjourn and Postpone

Example: The deadline has now been deferred indefinitely in view of the ongoing pandemic.

Question 3: Abjure
A. Destitute
B. Assume
C. Compel
D. Accrue

Solution: Option B

Synonyms: Renounce, Withdraw and Renege

Example: All the team members were requested to abjure their existing decision-making authority.

Question 4: Amplify
A. Repel
B. Contract
C. Enhance
D. Relieve

Solution: Option B

Synonyms: Intensify, Augment and Enlarge

Example: The speech of the headmaster further amplified his anger towards the education system.

Question 5: Commendation
A. Calumny
B. Adversity
C. Disillusion
D. Accolade

Solution: Option A

Synonyms: Praise, Admiration and Acclamation

Example: The employee deserves commendation for his role in the success of the company.

Question 6: Captivity
A. Confinement
B. Lustful
C. Liberty
D. Barbarity

Solution: Option C

Synonyms: Incarceration, Confinement and Bondage

Example: An animal in captivity cannot be considered to be happy with its situation.

Question 7: Spiritual
A. Blunt
B. Inglorious
C. Indurate
D. Carnal

Solution: Option D

Synonyms: Metaphysical, Devotional and Sacred

Example: He has a spiritual bent of mind and not everybody can understand it correctly.

Question 8: Disintegrate
A. Legalize
B. Pulverize
C. Cement
D. Mortar

Solution: Option C

Synonyms: Collapse, Fragment and Dismantle

Example: Their marriage disintegrated because of misunderstanding and lack of quality time.

Question 9: Headstrong
A. Pliable
B. Opaque
C. Misery
D. Giant

Solution: Option A

Synonyms: Foolhardy, Recalcitrant and Intractable

Example: Kevin is such a headstrong person that you really cannot think of placing him in an important position.

Question 10: Encumbrance
A. Incentive
B. Hindrance
C. Colossal
D. Aspiration

Solution: Option A

Synonyms: Hindrance, Impediment and Burden

Example: Please do not forget to notify the details regarding the encumbrance on the property you are mortgaging with the bank.

Question 11: Frantic
A. Agitated
B. Extravagant
C. Composed
D. Mirthful

Solution: Option C

Synonyms: Frenzied, Worried and Hysterical

Example: His frantic attempts to dislodge others from the position have not yielded any result till date.

Question 12: Hamstrung
A. Efficacious
B. Conviction
C. Security
D. Abrupt

Solution: Option A

Synonyms: Counterproductive, Inefficient and Feckless

Example: The players seemed to have been hamstrung by their own inhibitions.

Question 13: Impenitent
A. Affluent
B. Deliberate
C. Cautious
D. Repentant

Solution: Option D

Synonyms: Remorseless, Shameless and Unrepentant

Example: The arm-chair critics are often impenitent for their words and actions.

Question 14: Candor
A. Complication
B. Robust
C. Evasiveness
D. Extraneous

Solution: Option C

Synonyms: Candidness, Frankness and Openness

Example: Everybody loves a man of refreshing candor since such a person may be inclined towards help you.

Question 15: Lax
A. Slack
B. Attentive
C. Severe
D. Stingy

Solution: Option B

Synonyms: Negligent, Slack and Slipshod

Example: You should not have lax security at the entrance of such as a high-profile function.

Question 16: Luxuriant
A. Barren
B. Unsavory
C. Mystifying
D. Metrical

Solution: Option A

Synonyms: Lush, Overgrown and Verdant

Example: The beautiful lady tossed her luxuriant dark hair and everybody was mesmerized by her beauty.

Question 17: Infuriate
A. Placate
B. Irritate
C. Dissuade
D. Lure

Solution: Option A

Synonyms: Incense, Enrage and Provoke

Example: Jason’s lack of sincerity infuriated all the interview board members.

Question 18: Miraculous
A. Arrogant
B. Prosaic
C. Gallant
D. Strapping

Solution: Option B

Synonyms: Astonishing, Amazing and Incredible

Example: It is miraculous that the young boy could be saved by the doctors.

Question 19: Munificent
A. Faithful
B. Distinct
C. Parsimonious
D. Generous

Solution: Option C

Synonyms: Generous, Bountiful and Fulsome

Example: One rarely comes across such munificent behavior these days.

Question 20: Odious
A. Descendant
B. Latent
C. Ambiguous
D. Innocuous

Solution: Option D

Synonyms: Repugnant, Obnoxious and Abhorrent

Example: Jennifer turned out to be quite an odious character and we finally decided not to work with her ever.

This is it from us this time. Hope you have learnt something new from this quiz and you will definitely be able to apply your learning whenever and wherever required. The examinations are coming and we, at Vidya Guru, will be there for you always to help you sail through the journey. For free exam preparation Coaching Videos do follow us on our YouTube Channel. The Lectures published on our channel will give you 100% clarity about our Best CDS Online Classes and Video Courses for Bank PO / Clerk, SSC and CTET.

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Vygotksys Theory of Social Development by Best CTET Online Coaching

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When it comes to CTET examination, Child Development and Pedagogy (CDP) is a section that carries perhaps the greatest significance. The section comprises 30 questions that comprehensively test a candidate’s understanding of underlying principles and concepts. In fact, questions based on the concepts of pedagogy are there in other sections of the exam as well. In fact, it can be undoubtedly said that one can’t crack the exam without mastering CDP.

Being the Centre for Best CTET Online Classes in India for Paper 1 and Paper 2 preparation, Vidya Guru provides 100% exam oriented learning material to help all the aspiring candidates. Keeping this in mind, we have come up with a ready reckoner covering one of the most important theories of Child Development: Vygotsky’s Socio-Cultural Theory.

Vygotsky’s Theory

Lev Vygotsky’s socio-cultural theory of learning is one of the pioneering theories in the field of child development. His theory emphasizes the significance of social factors in learning and cognitive development. He, along with Piaget and Kohlberg, has had a profound impact on our understanding of child psychology. The influence of his work has been far-reaching. In fact, it is one of the cornerstones of modern day teaching methodology.

Vygotsky’s Theory: Key Points

1. Learning is a social process.
2. Social interaction plays a vital role in cognitive development.
3. Development is the result of social learning (learning precedes development).
4. Vygostksy has not divided development into any stages.
5. Every function in the cultural development of children appears 1st at the social level and after that the, individual level.
6. Language has a profound effect on thought.

Important Concepts for CTET Preparation Online

(I) Scaffolding: It is the temporary support that adults provide to promote learning in children. Scaffolding helps children discover new principles and guides their thinking in the right direction. Because of this support, children are able to accomplish a task that they weren’t capable of earlier. This support is withdrawn as soon as the learner is able to accomplish the same task independently, without requiring anyone’s guidance.

(II) Zone of Proximal Development: It refers to the gap between what children can do themselves and what they can with adult guidance or peer support. In other words, it is the distance between a child’s level of self dependence and the level that he/she can acquire with guidance and support. Vygotsky is of the view that development takes place in the zone of proximal development.

(III) More Knowledgeable Other (MKO): MKO refers to someone who is more skilled and capable than the learner. The MKO possesses a greater level of understanding than the learner. It may be a parent, a teacher, a helping elder or even the child’s peer. In fact, an MKO can also be a person younger than the learner. In today’s time, an intelligent machine or even the computer software can be considered to be an MKO.

(IV) Collaborative Learning & Group Activities: Vygotsky is a strong supporter of group learning. He is of the view that while working in a peer group; children can facilitate each other in their learning attempts. Thus, they become capable of accomplishing the tasks that they are individually not capable of.

(V) Private Speech: As per Vygotsky, children use private speech for self-direction. Children attempt to regulate their own actions through private speech (self-talk). This language later becomes the basis for complex mental activity. It demonstrates early mental processing and helps us understand how children think about their own behavior. Private speech reduces and finally disappears with growing age. It becomes underground and eventually results into inner speech or verbal thought

Past Questions for CTET Exam Preparation
Question 1. An educator wants to help his students understand various views of a situation. He offers his students several chances to discuss the situation in different group settings. As per Vygotsky’s point of view, his students will _________ the various views and develop different perspectives of the situation themselves.
(A) Internalize
(B) Operationalize
(C) Construct
(D) Diverge

Answer: (A)

Question 2. What does the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) represent in Vygotsky’s theory?
(A) Tasks that are too difficult for children, but which can be accomplished by them through adult support.
(B) A teacher’s interference that hinders the learning of her students.
(C) Cognitive development is the proximal zone of growth.
(D) The learning that takes place only in a formal setting.

Answer: (A)

Question 3. Which of the following is correct with respect to the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) discussed in Vygotsky’s socio-cultural theory?
(A) It is that phase where the maximum development takes place.
(B) It is that phase of development where a student takes full responsibility for his/her own learning.
(C) It refers to a context in which students can almost perform a task on their own with the right level of support.
(D) It is the point in the learning cycle when the teacher can withdraw the support provided to a student.

Answer: (C)

Question 4. Which of the following thinkers while considering children active seekers of knowledge, stresses the role of cultural and social contents on their thinking?
(A) Jean Piaget
(B) Edward Thorndike
(C) JB Watson
(D) Lev Vygotsky

Answer: (D)

Question 5. While attempting to solve a jig-saw puzzle, 5-year-old Ketan says to himself, “I must find the yellow piece, the round one, not the square one, because it will come here and complete this cap”.
Vygotsky refers to such type of talk as
(A) Scaffolding
(B) Self-centered speech
(C) Private speech
(D) Thinking aloud

Answer: (C)

Question 6. As per Vygotsky, when adults alter the support in order to improve the child’s existing level of performance, it’s known as
(A) Reciprocal teaching
(B) Scaffolding
(C) Assimilation
(D) Accommodation

Answer: (B)

Question 7. Who among the following is of the view that it’s essential to understand the impact of the cultural framework and social processes on a child’s thinking?
(A) Lawrence Kohlberg
(B) BF Skinner
(C) Jean Piaget
(D) Lev Vygotsky

Answer: (D)

Question 8. The teacher observed that Vikrant couldn’t find the answer to a question on his own. However, he is able to do so under peer or adult guidance. What is this guidance known as?
(A) Decentration
(B) Zone of Proximal Development
(C) Positive Transfer of Learning
(D) Scaffolding

Answer: (D)

Question 9. A significant point of distinction between Piagetian and Vygotsky’s perspectives relates to
(A) their criticism of behaviouristic learning.
(B) the role played by a nurturing environment in child development.
(C) how they view language and thought.
(D) the way they view children as active creators of knowledge.

Answer: (C)

Question 10. As per Vygotsky, what is the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)?
(A) The zone outlining the guidance provided to a child by an adult.
(B) The gap between what children can do on their own and with support.
(C) The type and quantum of assistance provided to children to help them achieve their potential.
(D) The tasks that children can accomplish independently, without any external support.

Answer: (B)

Question 11. Vygotsky is of the view that a child learns
(A) When a positive or negative reinforcement is provided
(B) By maturation
(C) By reinforcement and imitation
(D) By interacting with peers and adults

Answer: (D)

Question 12. Vygotsky’s concept of ‘private speech’ in children
(A) demonstrates that children are self-centered
(B) illustrates that a child has inadequate learning ability and needs the support of adults around him
(C) demonstrates that children may get restless in absence of adequate mental stimulation
(D) shows that children make use of speech to direct their own actions

Answer: (D)

Question 13. According to Vygotsky, learning cannot be separated from
(A) Its social context
(B) thought and perception
(C) imitation and reinforcement
(D) a quantitative change in development

Answer: (A)

Question 14. In a constructivist class imagined by Vygotsky and Piaget, learning
(A) is the response to a stimulus provided by the teacher
(B) gets constructed by children themselves who participate actively
(C) is a passive transfer of knowledge from the teacher to the student
(D) takes place through an ongoing process of trial and error.

Answer: (B)

Question 15. Vygotsky’s socio-cultural theory forms the basis of
(A) Respondent learning
(B) Reciprocal teaching
(C) Operant conditioning
(D) Classical conditioning

Answer: (B)

Question 16. Which of the following does Vygotsky’s theory imply?
(A) collaborative problem solving.
(B) personal tests and individual assignments.
(C) not assisting students in their attempts at solving difficult problems after having provided the initial explanation.
(D) a child learns best in a group of peers who have an Intelligence Quotient less than his own.

Answer: (A)

Question 17. What does Scaffolding represent in the context of Vygotsky’s socio-cultural learning theory?
(A) remedial teaching that follows an assessment
(B) using previous knowledge as the base for construction of new knowledge
(C) temporary assistance provided by adults to help students in learning
(D) diagnostic teaching to find out and remedy a student’s learning gaps

Answer: (C)

Question 18. Which statement best sums up the relationship that Vygotsky visualizes between learning and development?
(A) Learning and development are independent of each other.
(B) Learning process precedes the development process.
(C) Learning and development are one and the same.
(D) There is little correlation between development and learning as these are parallel processes.

Answer: (B)

Question 19. Which of the following developmental aspects has been neglected in Vygotsky’s theory?
(A) Cultural
(B) Social
(C) Linguistic
(D) Physical

Answer: (D)

Question 20. Based on Vygotsky’s theory which of the following can be considered a type of scaffolding?
(A) Giving motivational speeches to learners
(B) Providing cues and prompts along with asking questions at important stages
(C) Providing ample practice tasks to support trial and error learning
(D) Offering rewards and incentives for training desirable behavior

Answer: (B)

Question 21. What, as per Lev Vygotsky, is the primary cause of cognitive development?
(A) Assimilation
(B) Accommodation of cognitive structures (mental schemas)
(C) Stimulus response connectionism
(D) Social learning

Answer: (D)

Question 22. As an educator, who is a firm believer in Vygotsky’s socio-cultural theory of learning, which of the following assessing methods will you choose?
(A) Graded tests
(B) Collaborative projects
(C) Open-ended essay type questions
(D) Memory based factual questions

Answer: (B)

Question 23. Which of the following statements will be supported by Vygotsky’s socio-cultural theory?
(A) A child learns language primarily through an inborn LAD (language acquisition device).
(B) Peer interaction and dialogue with adults do not affect linguistic development
(C) The role of culture in linguistic development is minimal.
(D) The nature of thought gets modified by linguistic development

Answer: (D)

Question 24. Which statement correctly summarizes Vygotsky and Piaget’s conception of language and thought?
(A) Both thinkers view language originating from children’s thoughts.
(B) As per Vygotsky, thought originates 1st, whereas Piaget is of the view that language has a profound impact on thought.
(C) As per Piaget, thought originates 1st, while Vygotsky is of the view language has a profound impact on thought.
(D) Both thinkers view thoughts to be originating from language.

Answer: (C)

Question 25. Tamish, a 5-year-old boy, talks to himself while trying to color figures in a picture book. How would Piaget and Vygotsky explain this behaviour?
(A) Vygotsky would explain it as the child’s effort to regulate his own actions through private speech, whereas Piaget would explain it as egocentric speech.
(B) Vygotsky would explain it as self discovery, while Piaget would explain it as social imitation.
(C) Piaget would explain it as the child’s efforts to actively construct language, whereas Vygotsky would explain it as the child’s attempt to copy his elders.
(D) Both Vygotsky and Piaget would explain it as self-centered nature of children’s thinking.

Answer: (A)

Question 26. Who among the following isn’t a stage theorist?
(A) Jean Piaget
(B) Lev Vygostksy
(C) Sigmund Freud
(D) Lawrence Kohlberg

Answer: (B)

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Summary
This blog update focuses on some very important concepts of Child Development. It also covers select past year questions from CTET Examinations for your benefit.

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